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Tort Law Chapter 2 Quiz



True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 1. 

Negligence requires intent to commit a harmful act.
 

 2. 

Scope of duty is defined in terms of the foreseeability of injury to the victim.
 

 3. 

The tortfeasor must breach his or her duty of care to commit negligence.
 

 4. 

Duty is the obligation to either do or not do something.
 

 5. 

Proximate cause is defined in terms of the foreseeability of injury.
 

 6. 

Substantial factor analysis is a form of direct causation.
 

 7. 

Res ipsa loquitor means “the thing speaks for itself.”
 

 8. 

When a single tortfeasor causes injury, he or she is jointly and severally liable.
 

 9. 

Compensatory damages are commonly awarded in negligence cases.
 

 10. 

A negligent tortfeasor is absolutely liable for the injuries caused.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 11. 

Negligence may be best defined as
a.
The failure to exercise the highest standard of care to avoid injuring others or their property
b.
The failure to exercise reasonable care to avoid injuring others or their property
c.
A complete disregard for the safety and welfare of others
d.
Being careless
e.
None of the above
 

 12. 

Which of the following is not an element of negligence?
a.
Duty of reasonable care
b.
Breach of duty
c.
Causation
d.
Proximate cause
e.
All of the above are negligence elements
 

 13. 

Conrad parked his car on a hill. He forgot to engage the parking brake. The car jumped out of gear, rolled down the hill, and crashed into Alfred’s restaurant, injuring three customers. To whom did Conrad owe a duty of reasonable care?
a.
Alfred
b.
The three customers
c.
Himself
d.
Both A and B
e.
Both B and C
 

 14. 

The scope of duty is usually defined in terms of
a.
Reasonable foreseeability
b.
Intent
c.
State of mind
d.
Habit
e.
None of the above
 

 15. 

Foreseeable plaintiff’s theory asks
a.
Did the tortfeasor intend to injure the plaintiff?
b.
Was it reasonably foreseeable that the person hurt would be the injured as a result of the tortfeasor’s actions?
c.
Should the tortfeasor have known that his or her actions would cause a specific type of injury?
d.
This concept applies to intentional torts, not negligence.
 

 16. 

Under common law negligence, reasonable care is defined by
a.
Experience
b.
Statute
c.
The reasonable person standard
d.
The judge’s preference
e.
None of the above
 

 17. 

In a negligence lawsuit, who most often decides how the reasonable person would have acted?
a.
The appellate courts
b.
The state legislature
c.
The arbitrator-of-law
d.
The trier-of-fact
e.
None of the above
 

 18. 

In malpractice cases, the standard of care in commonly defined by
a.
A national standard of care
b.
Expert testimony
c.
The special skills and training of the defendant’s profession
d.
All of the above
e.
None of the above
 

 19. 

Duty is defined as
a.
Legal obligation
b.
Failure to diagnose
c.
Abandonment
d.
All of the above
e.
C and D only
 

 20. 

The following might be examples of medical malpractice:
a.
Lack of informed consent
b.
Failure to diagnose
c.
Abandonment
d.
All of the above
e.
C and D only
 

 21. 

Another name for special damages is
a.
Consequential damages
b.
General damages
c.
The verdict
d.
None of the above
 

 22. 

Substantial factor analysis states
a.
The tortfeasor is liable for injuries to the victim if the tortfeasor reasonably should have known that his or her actions would cause injuries.
b.
The tortfeasor did not intend to cause the injuries.
c.
The tortfeasor is liable for injuries to the victim when the tortfeasor’s actions were a substantial factor in producing the harm.
d.
To set the plaintiff’s damages, the court considers how substantially the victim was hurt and how much of a factor the defendant played in causing the harm.
 

 23. 

Joint and several liability is similar to which type of causation?
a.
Strict liability
b.
Substantial factor analysis
c.
Intentional causation
d.
Unintentional causation
 

 24. 

Proximate cause is best defined as
a.
But for the tortfeasor’s actions, the victim would not have been harmed
b.
The tortfeasor intended to cause the victim’s injuries
c.
The tortfeasor’s actions were a substantial factor in producing the victim’s injuries
d.
The tortfeasor’s actions that cause a reasonably foreseeable injury to the victim’s injuries
 

 25. 

Proximate cause is sometimes called
a.
Strict liability
b.
The law of cause and effect
c.
Legal cause
d.
Res ipsa loquitur
 

 26. 

When a victim has a peculiar health condition that is reasonably foreseeable, and the tortfeasor injures the victim, the courts call this
a.
Res ipsa loquitur
b.
Proximate cause
c.
Taking the victim as you find him
d.
Taking the victim as you leave him
e.
None of the above
 

 27. 

Which type of damages are rarely awarded in negligence cases?
a.
Compensatory
b.
Punitive
c.
Exemplary
d.
Both A and B
e.
Both B and C
 

 28. 

Under res ipsa loquitor, which of the following statements is true?
a.
The defendant’s negligence is presumed
b.
The defendant was in exclusive control over the action or object that injured the plaintiff
c.
The defendant is in the better position to prove his or her lack of negligence than the plaintiff is to prove negligence
d.
All of the above
e.
None of the above
 

 29. 

In which type(s) of cases would res ipsa loquitor most commonly be used?
a.
Medical malpractice
b.
Motor vehicle accidents
c.
Slip-and-fall cases
d.
All of the above
e.
None of the above
 

 30. 

What negligence concepts do many courts combine?
a.
Causation and proximate cause
b.
Duty and injury
c.
Damages and scope of duty
d.
Reasonable care and proximate cause
e.
None of the above
 



 
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