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CalPro Chapter 5 Quiz



True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
 

 1. 

When ESI is demanded, the form or forms in which it is to be produced must be specified in the demand.
 

 2. 

The responding party must produce ESI in the form specified in the demand.
 

 3. 

A responding party may only assert its claim that ESI is not reasonably accessible by moving for a protective order.
 

 4. 

Whenever a court finds that ESI is not reasonably accessible, the ESI will not have to be produced.
 

 5. 

When calculating discovery cut-off and motion cut-off dates, and other deadlines that fall a given number of days before the trial date, if the last day falls on a weekend or holiday, keep counting backward to the next court day. (C.C.P. Section 2016.060) True or False?
 

 6. 

Documents produced in response to an inspection demand may be produced as they are kept in the ordinary course of business. True or False?
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 7. 

To fall within the scope of discovery, the request must seek information which is:
a.
Reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.
b.
Relevant to the subject matter of the case.
c.
Not privileged.
d.
All of the above. 
 

 8. 

Which of the following is not a goal of discovery?
a.
To argue the merits of the case. 
b.
To preserve evidence for trial.
c.
To provide evidence on which to base pretrial motions.
d.
To promote out of court settlements.
 

 9. 

In an unlimited civil case, a party may overcome the 35 limit on special interrogatories by way of:
a.
Motion to Compel.
b.
Declaration for Additional Discovery. 
c.
Declaration of Due Diligence.
d.
All of the above.
 

 10. 

In California state court, interrogatories:
a.
May be propounded to non-parties.
b.
May contain subparts.
c.
Are not filed with the court. 
d.
Require a response within 20 days.
e.
All of the above.
 

 11. 

In response to a Demand for Exchange of Expert Witnesses by one party, the other parties must:
a.
Schedule their own expert’s deposition.
b.
Simultaneously exchange their expert witness list and declaration, if any.
c.
Serve a counter Demand for Exchange.
d.
All of the above.
 

 12. 

Which of the following information does not need to be disclosed in an Exchange of Expert Witnesses?
a.
The expert’s name and address.
b.
The days the expert is available for deposition. 
c.
The amount of the expert’s fees.
d.
The general substance of the expert’s expected testimony.
 

 13. 

Which of the following is not an allowable objection which may be asserted in response to an interrogatory?
a.
Attorney/client privilege.
b.
Fifth Amendment privilege.
c.
Spousal communication privilege.
d.
Hearsay. 
 

 14. 

Which of the following is false?
a.
Before making a motion to compel further responses to discovery, the moving party must attempt to meet and confer with opposing counsel.
b.
Interrogatory answers must be signed and verified by the person making them.
c.
Making or opposing a motion to compel discovery without substantial justification is a ground for sanctions.
d.
In unlimited civil cases, all written discovery is subject to a limit of 35. 
 

 15. 

Which of the following is false?
a.
A non-party witness who is to be deposed, but not commanded to bring documents to the deposition, must be served with Mandatory Judicial Council Form No. SUBP-015.
b.
An objection to a depo notice not made at least 3 court days prior to the depo date is waived. 
c.
A “PMK” means the “person most knowledgeable.”
d.
Corporations must be deposed:  (1) within 75 miles of their principal office, or (2) within 150 miles of their designated offices.
e.
All of the above.
 

 16. 

Which of the following is false as regards requests for production:
a.
The response may agree to produce all documents without objection so long as the production date is changed to an earlier date.
b.
Where the request requires production of documents for photocopying, the requesting party pays the photocopying costs.
c.
The date set for production must be at least 30 days after service of the demand.
d.
None of the above.
 

 17. 

Which of the following is false? 
a.
In personal injury cases, a defendant may have the right to take one independent physical examination and one independent mental examination of the plaintiff without a court order. 
b.
A party who refuses to submit to an independent medical exam could be precluded at trial from introducing evidence of his/her medical condition.
c.
In response to a demand for independent medical exam, a party may agree to the examination, but only upon certain conditions.
d.
A written response to the demand must be served within 20 days after service of the demand.
e.
None of the above.
 

 18. 

A motion to compel further responses to interrogatories must be brought:
a.
Within 35 days after receipt of the response.
b.
Within 35 days after service of the response.
c.
Within 45 days after receipt of the verified response.
d.
Within 45 days after service of the verified response. 
 

 19. 

Which of the following must be included in a notice of taking deposition?
a.
A disclosure of any ongoing contractual relationship between the court reporting agency and the party noticing the deposition.
b.
A disclosure of any ongoing contractual relationship between the court reporting agency and any third party financing the litigation.
c.
A disclosure that the noticing party required the deposing attorney to use the particular court reporting agency.
d.
A disclosure that a third party financing the litigation required the deposing attorney to use the particular court reporting agency.
e.
All of the above.
 



 
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